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ISTQB Sample Exam chương V: Test Management (K3)
1. The oracle assumption:
2. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
- a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
3. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
- a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
- v - test control
w - test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
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Các câu hỏi tiếp theo của chương V
4. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
5. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
- a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents
6. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
- a) auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access
7. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
- a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
8. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?
- a) Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
b) Software delivery is behind schedule
c) Threat to a patient’s life
d) 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated
9. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be best?
- a) Number of detected defects, testing cost;
b) Number of residual defects in the test object.
c) Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared
d) Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed
10. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
- a) Logic-based testing
b) Use-case-based testing
c) State transition testing
d) Systematic testing according to the V-model
11. What test items should be put under configuration management?
- a) Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the test object
b) Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board
c) Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
d) Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools
12. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
- a) The test object, the test material and the test environment
b) The problem reports and the test material
c) Only the test objects. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d) The test object and the test material
13. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
- (I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) The specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified
a) (I) and (II) are correct
b) (I) through (IV) are correct
c) (III) through (V) are correct
d) (I), (II) and (IV) are correct
14. Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
- a) For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one used British units
b) The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c) The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error cause
d) Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to
15. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
- (I) contractual requirements
(II) Legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) Application risk
(V) Project size
a) (I) through (III) are correct
b) All alternatives are correct
c) (II) and (V) are correct
d) (I), (III) and (V) are correct
16. Which of the following items need NOT to be given in an incident report?
- a) To specify when to stop the testing activity
b) To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
c) To ensure that the test case specification is complete
d) To know when a specific test has finished its execution
17. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
- a) The version number of the test object
b) Test data and used environment
c) Identification of the test case that failed
d) The location and instructions on how to correct the fault
18. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
- a) As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.
b) Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c) A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles
d) Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place
19. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
- a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
20. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
- a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
21. Test managers should not:
- a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to know when test planning is complete
d) to plan when to stop testing
22. What information need not be included in a test incident report:
- a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
23. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
- a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) the actual and expected outcomes
24. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
- a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
25. Testware (test cases, test dataset)
- a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
26. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
- a) needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b) should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c) is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d) does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system
27. An expert based test estimation is also known as
- a) The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
b) The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
c) The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
d) The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
28. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
- a) Narrow band Delphi
b) Wide band Delphi
c) Bespoke Delphi
d) Robust Delphi
29. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
- a) Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
b) Retest the module and confirm the bug
c) Assign the same bug to another developer
d) Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility
- a) Find bugs in the program
b) Check the technical accuracy of the document
c) Ensure the ease of use of the document
d) Ensure that the program is the latest version
30. You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources (work hours, test tools, etc.)
What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.
31. Item transmittal report is also known as
- a) Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
b) Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
c) Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
d) Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
32. The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
- a) Incident report
b) Release note
c) Review report
d) Audit report
33. Which is not the project risks
- I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
a) I, II and III
b) I, II and IV
c) II, III and IV
d) I, III and IV
34. Poor software characteristics are
- a) Supplier issues
b) Organization factors
c) Technical issues
d) Error-prone software delivered
35. Bug life cycle
- a) Only Project risks
b) Only Product risks
c) Project risks and Product risks
d) Project risks or Product risks
36. Which is not the fundamental test process
- a) Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
b) Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
c) Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
d) Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
37. A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.
- a) Planning and control
b) Test closure activities
c) Analysis and design
The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?
38. A Project risk includes which of the following:
- a) Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
b) Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
c) Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
d) Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
39. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to:
- a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions
40. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
- i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false
41. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
- i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
42. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:
- a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
43. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
- a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
44. What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
- a) Determining the test approach.
b) Preparing test specifications.
c) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
d) Measuring and analyzing results.
45. In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?
- a) To communicate how incidents will be managed.
b) To communicate how testing will be performed.
c) To produce a test schedule.
d) To produce a work breakdown structure.
46. What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
- a) After the software or system has been produced.
b) During development.
c) As early as possible.
d) During requirements analysis.
47. What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
- a) To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
b) To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
c) To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
d) To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
48. Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
- a) Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
b) Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.
c) Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
d) Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.
49. Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
- a) Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
b) Testing is isolated from development.
c) Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
d) Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.
50. For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
- a) An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.
b) An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software.
c) An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
d) An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
51. Which one is not the task of test leader?
- i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
a) i, iv, vi.
b) ii, iii, v.
c) i, iii, iv.
d) iv, v, vi.
52. Defect Tracking
- a. Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers and others
b. Decide about the implementation of the test environment
c. Write test summary reports
d. Review and contribute to test plans
53. What needs to be done when there is an insufficient time for testing?
- a) Is the communication channel between test team and development team
b) Is the communication channel between testing team and the rest of the team
c) Is the communication channel between the testing team and end users
d) all of the above
54. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used during software maintenance?
- 1) Do Ad-hoc testing
2) Do usability testing
3) Do sanity testing
4) Do a risk based analysis to prioritize
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 & 4
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
55. Test planning should begin
- a) Project management plan.
b) Customer support hot line.
c) Software problem reports.
d) Change control board.
Nội dung chi tiết và đáp án
- a) At the same time that requirement definitions begins
b) When building starts
c) When code build is complete
d) After shipping the first version
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