ISTQB Sample Exam - có 3 phần

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tvn
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ISTQB Sample Exam - có 3 phần

Post by tvn » Tue 31 Aug, 2010 4:51 pm

ISTQB Sample Exam phần 1

1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?

a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

//Tham khảo sự liên quan giữa các loại bao phủ này ở đây Path coverage - branch coverage - Decision coverage - statement coverage - LCSA coverage

4. Which of the following requirements is testable?

a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:

Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF

Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

6. Error guessing:

a) Supplements formal test design techniques.
b) Can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) Is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) Is not repeatable and should not be used.

7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:

a) Find as many faults as possible.
b) Test high risk areas.
c) Obtain good test coverage.
d) Test whatever is easiest to test.

9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?

v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control

1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results

a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?

a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

11. Which of the following is false?

a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

12. Enough testing has been performed when:

a) Time runs out.
b) The required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) No more faults are found.
d) The users won’t find any serious faults.

13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

15. Which of the following is false?

a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?

a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.

17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?

a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

19. The oracle assumption:

a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?

a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?

a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?

a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

26. Data flow analysis studies:

a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000

28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

a) Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) Can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) Are cheap to perform.

29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?

a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification

30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?

a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

32. Integration testing in the small:

a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.

33. Static analysis is best described as:

a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.

34. Alpha testing is:

a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

35. A failure is:

a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.

36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%

Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:

a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.

38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

39. Test cases are designed during:

a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.

40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.

Tìm hiểu thêm về State transition testing ở đây.

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tvn
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Re: ISTQB Sample Exam

Post by tvn » Tue 31 Aug, 2010 4:52 pm

ISTQB Sample Exam phần 2

Q1A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect

Q2 Regression testing should be performed:

v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false

Q3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except

a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test specifications

Q4 When should testing be stopped?

a) when all the planned tests have been run
b) when time has run out
c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?

a) 1000, 50000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999, 100000

Q6 Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design normally takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false

Q7 Non-functional system testing includes:

a) testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d) testing for functions that should not exist

Q8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?

a) auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access

Q9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?

a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

Q10 What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to determine when to stop testing

Q11 Consider the following statements:

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments.

a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false

Q12 Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?

Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
END IF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
END IF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Q13 Consider the following statements:

i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Q14 Functional system testing is:

a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times

Q15 Incidents would not be raised against:

a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

Q16 Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents

Q17 Maintenance testing is:

a) updating tests when the software has changed
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage

Q18 What can static analysis NOT find?

a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Q19 Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a) state transition testing
b) LCSAJ
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis

Q20 Beta testing is:

a) performed by customers at their own site
b) performed by customers at the software developer's site
c) performed by an Independent Test Team
d) performed as early as possible in the life cycle

Q21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team?

i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis

a) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii

Q22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective

Q23 Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?

a) black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique


Q24 Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

Q25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) calculating expected outputs
b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c) recording test inputs
d) reading test values from a data file

Q26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

a) re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers

Q27 Expected results are:

a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) most useful when specified in advance
d) derived from the code

Q28 What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

a) walk through
b) inspection
c) management review
d) post project review

Q29 Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

a) component testing
b) non-functional system testing
c) user acceptance testing
d) maintenance testing

Q30 What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?

a) setting up forms and databases
b) analyzing metrics and improving processes
c) writing the documents to be inspected
d) time spent on the document outside the meeting

Q31 Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

a) to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems

Q32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:

1. led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walk through

a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3

Q33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?

a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing

Q34 Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

a) expected outcomes are defined by the software's behavior
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

Q35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729

Q36 The cost of fixing a fault:

a) is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined

Q37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?

a) what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines

Q38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?

a) no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

Q39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing?

a) measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions

Q40 Error guessing is best used:

a) after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live

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Re: ISTQB Sample Exam

Post by tvn » Tue 31 Aug, 2010 4:54 pm

ISTQB Sample Exam phần 3

1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:

a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake

2 Regression testing should be performed:

v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification

4 Testing should be stopped when:

a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:

a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 9999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

6 Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7 Non-functional system testing includes:

a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:

a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?

a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing

11 Consider the following statements

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:

Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

13 Given the following:

Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

14 Given the following code, which is true:

IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

15 Consider the following:

Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet

17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

18 What can static analysis NOT find?

a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations

19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:

a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis

20 Beta testing is:

a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:

i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team

23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:

a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:

a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:

a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file

26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

27 Expected results are:

a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code

28 Test managers should not:

a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

29 Unreachable code would best be found using:

a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool

30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:

a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool

31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:

a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes

32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:

1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:

a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing

34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:

a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729

36 The cost of fixing a fault:

a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined

37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:

a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines

38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:

a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions

40 Error guessing is best used

a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users
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Ngan Nguyen
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Re: ISTQB Sample Exam - có 3 phần

Post by Ngan Nguyen » Thu 14 Oct, 2010 1:05 pm

4 Which of the following requirements is testable?

a)The system shall be user friendly.
b)The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c)The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d)The system shall be built to be portable.

Đáp án là c) Nhưng em thấy a), d) cũng test được mà -> không hỉu lém. Anh giải thích cho em với ^^
Last edited by Ngan Nguyen on Fri 15 Oct, 2010 2:22 pm, edited 1 time in total.



hoangliensonmt
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Re: ISTQB Sample Exam - có 3 phần

Post by hoangliensonmt » Thu 14 Oct, 2010 1:27 pm

Hi Ngân,

Theo như câu hỏi thì có 4 yêu cầu, mình có thể test được yêu cầu nào?

Anh xét từng yêu cầu của khách hàng nhé.

1. Yêu cầu thứ nhất: Phần mềm sẽ thân thiện với người dùng
Yêu cầu này là nói chung chung, không cụ thể, "thân thiện" là như thế nào? dễ sử dụng, dễ thấy, giúp thao tác nhanh, giảm nhập liệu đầu vào giống nhau, tránh các bước thao tác trùng lặp,... có thể đối với người này thì thân thiện nhưng đối với người khác (ít rành máy tính hơn) thì không thân thiện. Hoặc vấn đề thiết kế giao diện đẹp mắt, mỗi người có mỗi cách nhìn khác nhau nên không thể mang ra so sánh được.
=> cái này không thể test được (nghĩa là kết quả của phần mềm phải đúng với spec 100%)

2. Tính an toàn (safety-critical) của phần mềm phải là không có lỗi.
Chắc chắn mình sẽ test bảo mật đối với sản phẩm được tạo ra nhưng có ai bảo đảm là sẽ không bao giờ bị tấn công hay không? mình chỉ có thể test mọi trường hợp tấn công có thể mà mình biết.
=> không thể chắc chắn 100%

3. Thời gian phản hồi của phần mềm phải ít hơn 1 giây.
Điều này đương nhiên mình có thể đo đếm được
=> có thể test được

4. Hệ thống phải có tính dễ vận chuyển
Mình chỉ có thể test rằng hệ thống này dễ cài đặt trên windows (XP, server 2003, Vista hay win7) hoặc linux hoặc Mac OS.
Nếu spec chỉ ra cụ thể thì mình có thể đáp ứng được nhưng trong trường hợp này không nói cụ thể, nếu có một hệ điều hành mới hoặc một cấu hình, một loại máy mới thì có đảm bảo rằng phần mềm của mình có thể cài đặt, vận hành trên đó không?
=> vì vậy không thể test được yêu cầu này 100% - chỉ đáp ứng một phần nào thôi. (nếu yêu cầu rõ ràng cụ thể hơn thì có thể test được)

Nếu chưa bằng lòng thì em cho ý kiến nha.



Ngan Nguyen
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Re: ISTQB Sample Exam - có 3 phần

Post by Ngan Nguyen » Thu 14 Oct, 2010 8:58 pm

Câu trả lời hay! Thanks anh nha ^^



Ngan Nguyen
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Re: ISTQB Sample Exam - có 3 phần

Post by Ngan Nguyen » Mon 08 Nov, 2010 12:36 pm

Phan 1 va phan 3 co' chung 1 cau la cau #26. Nhung dap an dung o 2 phan la khac nhau: phan 1 la 26c, phan 3 la 26a. vay dap an nao la dung vay? :(



tvn
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Re: ISTQB Sample Exam - có 3 phần

Post by tvn » Mon 08 Nov, 2010 1:35 pm

Hi Ngan,

Em nhầm rồi, phần 2 và phần 3 có câu 26 gần giống nhau (vì câu hỏi thì giống mà phần trả lời thì khác nhau) nhưng kết quả đều là A
Không phải phần 1 và 3 nhé.

Phần 2:

Câu 26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

a) re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers

Phần 3:

Câu 26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers



Ngan Nguyen
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Re: ISTQB Sample Exam - có 3 phần

Post by Ngan Nguyen » Tue 09 Nov, 2010 12:48 pm

Hi anh, cai dap an cho phan 1, em down ve va thay no tra loi la 26c => phan 1 va phan 3 la 2 dap an khac nhau. Anh download cai dap an ve xem thu nhe. Thanks anh! ^^



tvn
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Re: ISTQB Sample Exam - có 3 phần

Post by tvn » Tue 09 Nov, 2010 12:51 pm

Ủa, câu hỏi của phần 1 nè

26 Data flow analysis studies:

a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

Có giống phần 3 đâu, chỉ có câu 26 phần 2 và phần 3 giống nhau thôi.



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